Tuesday, February 16, 2016

CCNP routing question and answer 2

Q18.A network engineer has configured a tracking object to monitor the reachability of IP SLA 1.
In order to update the next hop for the interesting traffic, which feature must be used in
conjunction with the newly created tracking object to manipulate the traffic flow as
required?

A. SNMP
B. PBR
C. IP SLA
D. SAA
E. ACLs
F. IGP

Answer: B

Q19. A network administrator is troubleshooting a DMVPN setup between the hub and the
spoke. Which action should the administrator take before troubleshooting the IPsec
configuration?


A. Verify the GRE tunnels.
B. Verify ISAKMP.
C. Verify NHRP.
D. Verify crypto maps.

Answer: A


Q20. Which statement is a restriction for PPPoE configuration?


A. Multiple PPPoE clients can use the same dialer interface.
B. Multiple PPPoE clients can use the same dialer pool.
C. A PPPoE session can be initiated only by the client.
D. A PPPoE session can be initiated only by the access concentrator.

Answer: C

Q21.Which three items can you track when you use two time stamps with IP SLAs? (Choose
three.)

A. delay
B. jitter
C. packet loss
D. load
E. throughput
F. path

Answer: A,B,C


Q22. What are the default timers for RIPng?


A. Update: 30 seconds Expire: 180 seconds Flush: 240 seconds
B. Update: 20 seconds Expire: 120 seconds Flush: 160 seconds
C. Update: 10 seconds Expire: 60 seconds Flush: 80 seconds
D. Update: 5 seconds Expire: 30 seconds Flush: 40 seconds

Answer: A


Q23. An engineer is asked to monitor the availability of the next-hop IP address of 172.16.201.25
every 3 seconds using an ICMP echo packet via an ICMP echo probe. Which two
commands accomplish this task? (Choose two.)


A. router(config-ip-sla)#icmp-echo 172.16.201.25 source-interface FastEthernet 0/0
B. router(config-ip-sla-echo)#timeout 3
C. router(config-ip-sla)#icmp-jitter 172.16.201.25 interval 100
D. router(config-ip-sla-echo)#frequency 3
E. router(config-ip-sla)#udp-echo 172.16.201.25 source-port 23
F. router(config-ip-sla-echo)#threshold 3

Answer: A,D

Q24. The OSPF database of a router shows LSA types 1, 2, 3, and 7 only. Which type of area is
this router connected to?


A. stub area
B. totally stubby area
C. backbone area
D. not-so-stubby area

Answer: D


Q25. If the total bandwidth is 64 kbps and the RTT is 3 seconds, what is the bandwidth delay
product?


A. 8,000 bytes
B. 16,000 bytes
C. 24,000 bytes
D. 32,000 bytes
E. 62,000 bytes

Answer: C


Q26. On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two.)


A. serial interfaces
B. Ethernet interfaces
C. fiber interfaces
D. ISDN interfaces
E. auxiliary interfaces

Answer: A,D


Q27. A network engineer is considering enabling load balancing with EIGRP. Which
consideration should be analyzed?


A. EIGRP allows a maximum of four paths across for load balancing traffic.
B. By default, EIGRP uses a default variance of 2 for load balancing.
C. EIGRP unequal path load balancing can result in routing loops.
D. By default, EIGRP performs equal cost load balancing at least across four equal cost
paths.

Answer: D


Q28.Which two routing protocols are supported by Easy Virtual Network? (Choose two.)


A. RIPv2
B. OSPFv2
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
E. IS-IS

Answer: B,D



Q29.Which statement is true?


A. RADIUS uses TCP, and TACACS+ uses UDP.
B. RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the packet.
C. TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of a packet.
D. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization.

Answer: D


Q30. Which type of BGP AS number is 64591?


A. a private AS number
B. a public AS number
C. a private 4-byte AS number
D. a public 4-byte AS number

Answer: A

Q31. Which parameter in an SNMPv3 configuration offers authentication and encryption?

A. auth
B. noauth
C. priv
D. secret

Answer: C


Q32. Which protocol is used in a DMVPN network to map physical IP addresses to logical IP
addresses?


A. BGP
B. LLDP
C. EIGRP
D. NHRP

Answer: D


Q33. What is the purpose of the route-target command?


A. It extends the IP address to identify which VRF instance it belongs to.
B. It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance IGP routing protocol
    capabilities.
C. It manages the import and export of routes between two or more VRF instances.
D. It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance EGP routing protocol
capabilities.

Answer: C


Q34. A route map uses an ACL, if the required matching is based on which criteria?


A. addressing information
B. route types
C. AS paths
D. metrics

Answer: A


Q35. Which two authentication protocols does PPP support? (Choose two.)

A. WAP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. EAP
E. RADIUS

Answer: B,C


Q36. Which two statements indicate a valid association mode for NTP synchronization? (Choose
two.)


A. The client polls NTP servers for time.
B. The client broadcasts NTP requests.
C. The client listens to NTP broadcasts.
D. The client creates a VPN tunnel to an NTP server.
E. The client multicasts NTP requests.

Answer: A,C

Q37. Various employees in the same department report to the network engineer about slowness
in the network connectivity to the Internet. They are also having latency issues
communicating to the network drives of various departments. Upon monitoring, the
engineer finds traffic flood in the network. Which option is the problem?


A. network outage
B. network switching loop
C. router configuration issue
D. wrong proxy configured

Answer: B

Q38. Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?


A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both

Answer: D

Q39. Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is
assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?

A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic

Answer: A

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